Practise Indian Polity for UPSC Prelims, state PCS and other competitive exams with 10 sets of 15 questions each (150 questions in all). Sets 1 and 2 are quick revision; sets 3 to 10 cover the Constitution topic by topic, from its making and the Preamble to constitutional bodies, with an explanation and UPSC-style marks for every set.
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All questions with answers and explanations
Prefer to read rather than take the test? Every question from the 10 sets is listed below with the correct answer and a short explanation, 150 questions in all. Open a set to see its questions. It works well for a quick revision the night before, or for checking a question you got wrong in the test above.
Quick Revision I
Who is the guardian of the Indian Constitution?
- (a) President
- (b) Supreme Court
- (c) Prime Minister
- (d) Parliament
Answer: (b) Supreme Court. The Supreme Court acts as the guardian and interpreter of the Constitution.
Which Article deals with Right to Equality?
- (a) Article 14
- (b) Article 19
- (c) Article 21
- (d) Article 32
Answer: (a) Article 14. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws.
Which part of Constitution contains Fundamental Rights?
- (a) Part II
- (b) Part III
- (c) Part IV
- (d) Part V
Answer: (b) Part III. Fundamental Rights are included in Part III.
Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
- (a) Chief Justice
- (b) President
- (c) Lok Sabha
- (d) Rajya Sabha
Answer: (b) President. The President appoints the Prime Minister.
Directive Principles are inspired from which country?
- (a) USA
- (b) Ireland
- (c) Canada
- (d) France
Answer: (b) Ireland. Directive Principles were borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
Which Article provides Constitutional Remedies?
- (a) 32
- (b) 21
- (c) 19
- (d) 14
Answer: (a) 32. Article 32 allows citizens to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of rights.
How many schedules are in the Constitution now?
- (a) 10
- (b) 12
- (c) 14
- (d) 8
Answer: (b) 12. Currently the Constitution has 12 schedules.
Who was Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
- (a) Rajendra Prasad
- (b) Ambedkar
- (c) Nehru
- (d) Patel
Answer: (b) Ambedkar. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar chaired the drafting committee.
What is the tenure of Lok Sabha?
- (a) 4 years
- (b) 5 years
- (c) 6 years
- (d) 7 years
Answer: (b) 5 years. Lok Sabha has a normal tenure of 5 years.
Which Article abolishes Untouchability?
- (a) 15
- (b) 16
- (c) 17
- (d) 18
Answer: (c) 17. Article 17 abolishes untouchability.
Which body conducts elections in India?
- (a) Parliament
- (b) Election Commission
- (c) Supreme Court
- (d) President
Answer: (b) Election Commission. Election Commission of India conducts elections.
Which amendment lowered voting age to 18?
- (a) 61st
- (b) 42nd
- (c) 44th
- (d) 52nd
Answer: (a) 61st. 61st Constitutional Amendment lowered voting age from 21 to 18.
Who presides over Rajya Sabha?
- (a) Speaker
- (b) Vice President
- (c) Prime Minister
- (d) President
Answer: (b) Vice President. Vice President is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Which writ means 'produce the body'?
- (a) Mandamus
- (b) Certiorari
- (c) Habeas Corpus
- (d) Quo Warranto
Answer: (c) Habeas Corpus. Habeas Corpus protects against illegal detention.
Indian Constitution came into effect on?
- (a) 15 Aug 1947
- (b) 26 Jan 1950
- (c) 26 Nov 1949
- (d) 2 Oct 1950
Answer: (b) 26 Jan 1950. The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950.
Quick Revision II
Which Article defines India as a Union of States?
- (a) Article 1
- (b) Article 2
- (c) Article 3
- (d) Article 4
Answer: (a) Article 1. Article 1 states India shall be a Union of States.
Money Bill can be introduced in?
- (a) Rajya Sabha
- (b) Lok Sabha
- (c) Either House
- (d) President Office
Answer: (b) Lok Sabha. Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
Who decides whether a bill is Money Bill?
- (a) President
- (b) Speaker
- (c) Prime Minister
- (d) Supreme Court
Answer: (b) Speaker. Speaker of Lok Sabha certifies a Money Bill.
Fundamental Duties were added by which amendment?
- (a) 44th
- (b) 52nd
- (c) 42nd
- (d) 86th
Answer: (c) 42nd. 42nd Amendment Act 1976 added Fundamental Duties.
Which schedule deals with Panchayats?
- (a) 10
- (b) 11
- (c) 12
- (d) 9
Answer: (b) 11. 11th Schedule contains powers of Panchayats.
Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
- (a) Prime Minister
- (b) President
- (c) Parliament
- (d) Governor
Answer: (b) President. The President appoints the CJI.
Which article allows formation of new states?
- (a) 2
- (b) 3
- (c) 4
- (d) 5
Answer: (b) 3. Article 3 allows Parliament to form new states.
Who is head of the state?
- (a) Prime Minister
- (b) President
- (c) Chief Justice
- (d) Speaker
Answer: (b) President. President is the constitutional head.
Which body resolves centre-state disputes?
- (a) Supreme Court
- (b) High Court
- (c) President
- (d) Parliament
Answer: (a) Supreme Court. Supreme Court has original jurisdiction.
Finance Commission is constituted every?
- (a) 3 years
- (b) 5 years
- (c) 10 years
- (d) 6 years
Answer: (b) 5 years. Finance Commission is formed every 5 years.
Which schedule lists languages?
- (a) 8th
- (b) 7th
- (c) 10th
- (d) 11th
Answer: (a) 8th. 8th Schedule lists 22 languages.
Which amendment introduced GST?
- (a) 101st
- (b) 97th
- (c) 86th
- (d) 73rd
Answer: (a) 101st. 101st Amendment introduced GST.
Rajya Sabha maximum strength?
- (a) 250
- (b) 245
- (c) 230
- (d) 200
Answer: (a) 250. Maximum strength is 250.
Who administers oath to President?
- (a) CJI
- (b) PM
- (c) Speaker
- (d) Vice President
Answer: (a) CJI. Chief Justice administers oath.
Emergency provisions borrowed from?
- (a) USA
- (b) Canada
- (c) UK
- (d) Germany
Answer: (d) Germany. Emergency provisions were borrowed from Germany.
Making of the Constitution and Preamble
The Constituent Assembly was set up under which plan?
- (a) Cripps Mission
- (b) Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
- (c) Mountbatten Plan
- (d) Wavell Plan
Answer: (b) Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946. The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan, with members indirectly elected by provincial assemblies.
Who was the permanent Chairman (President) of the Constituent Assembly?
- (a) B.R. Ambedkar
- (b) Sachchidananda Sinha
- (c) Rajendra Prasad
- (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (c) Rajendra Prasad. Dr Sachchidananda Sinha was the temporary chairman; Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946.
Who moved the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly?
- (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
- (b) Sardar Patel
- (c) B.R. Ambedkar
- (d) K.M. Munshi
Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru. Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946; it was adopted on 22 January 1947 and later shaped the Preamble.
The Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
- (a) 26 January 1950
- (b) 15 August 1947
- (c) 26 November 1949
- (d) 24 January 1950
Answer: (c) 26 November 1949. It was adopted on 26 November 1949, now observed as Constitution Day; most provisions came into force on 26 January 1950.
Who was the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly?
- (a) B.N. Rau
- (b) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
- (c) H.C. Mukherjee
- (d) T.T. Krishnamachari
Answer: (a) B.N. Rau. Sir B.N. Rau, as constitutional adviser, prepared the initial draft of the Constitution.
Which words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment, 1976?
- (a) Sovereign and Democratic
- (b) Socialist, Secular and Integrity
- (c) Justice and Liberty
- (d) Republic and Fraternity
Answer: (b) Socialist, Secular and Integrity. The 42nd Amendment added 'Socialist' and 'Secular' and changed 'unity of the Nation' to 'unity and integrity of the Nation'.
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?
- (a) Berubari Union case (1960)
- (b) Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
- (c) Golaknath case (1967)
- (d) Minerva Mills case (1980)
Answer: (b) Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). In Kesavananda Bharati the Court held the Preamble is part of the Constitution, reversing its 1960 Berubari opinion.
The idea of a Preamble was borrowed from the constitution of:
- (a) UK
- (b) USA
- (c) Ireland
- (d) Canada
Answer: (b) USA. The Indian Preamble is modelled on the idea of the US Constitution's preamble, beginning with 'We, the people'.
Which of these is NOT mentioned as an objective in the Preamble?
- (a) Justice
- (b) Liberty
- (c) Equality
- (d) Fraternity of nations
Answer: (d) Fraternity of nations. The Preamble lists justice, liberty, equality and fraternity (assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity of the Nation), not fraternity of nations.
The concept of 'Republic' in the Preamble means:
- (a) The head of state is elected, not hereditary
- (b) India is a member of the Commonwealth
- (c) Parliament is supreme
- (d) There is universal adult franchise
Answer: (a) The head of state is elected, not hereditary. A republic has an elected head of state; in India the President is elected indirectly for a fixed term.
The idea of 'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' in the Preamble was taken from:
- (a) The American Revolution
- (b) The French Revolution
- (c) The Russian Revolution
- (d) The Irish Constitution
Answer: (b) The French Revolution. These ideals come from the French Revolution; the ideal of social, economic and political justice was inspired by the Russian Revolution.
The Constitution of India borrowed the concept of Fundamental Duties from:
- (a) USA
- (b) Ireland
- (c) USSR
- (d) Japan
Answer: (c) USSR. Fundamental Duties were inspired by the constitution of the former USSR and added by the 42nd Amendment.
The 'Concurrent List' idea was borrowed from the constitution of:
- (a) Canada
- (b) Australia
- (c) USA
- (d) Germany
Answer: (b) Australia. The Concurrent List, freedom of trade and commerce, and joint sittings were borrowed from Australia.
A strong Centre with residuary powers vested in the Union was borrowed from:
- (a) Canada
- (b) Australia
- (c) USA
- (d) Switzerland
Answer: (a) Canada. The federation with a strong Centre and residuary powers with the Centre follows the Canadian model.
Which Act is the main source of the administrative and structural details of the Indian Constitution?
- (a) Government of India Act, 1919
- (b) Government of India Act, 1935
- (c) Indian Independence Act, 1947
- (d) Indian Councils Act, 1909
Answer: (b) Government of India Act, 1935. Much of the Constitution's structure, including the federal scheme, the Governor's office and emergency provisions, comes from the Government of India Act, 1935.
Fundamental Rights and Writs
Which Article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth?
- (a) Article 14
- (b) Article 15
- (c) Article 16
- (d) Article 17
Answer: (b) Article 15. Article 15 prohibits such discrimination by the State and in access to public places.
Equality of opportunity in public employment is guaranteed by:
- (a) Article 15
- (b) Article 16
- (c) Article 19
- (d) Article 21
Answer: (b) Article 16. Article 16 guarantees equal opportunity in public employment and allows reservations for backward classes.
How many freedoms does Article 19 now guarantee to citizens?
- (a) Seven
- (b) Six
- (c) Five
- (d) Eight
Answer: (b) Six. Article 19 originally had seven freedoms; the right to property under 19(1)(f) was deleted by the 44th Amendment, leaving six.
Which Fundamental Rights are available to foreigners as well as citizens?
- (a) Articles 15, 16 and 19
- (b) Articles 14, 20, 21 and 25
- (c) Articles 29 and 30
- (d) Article 19 only
Answer: (b) Articles 14, 20, 21 and 25. Articles 14, 20, 21, 22 and 25 to 28 apply to all persons; Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 are for citizens only.
The right to education for children aged 6 to 14 years is in:
- (a) Article 21A
- (b) Article 45
- (c) Article 51A
- (d) Article 24
Answer: (a) Article 21A. The 86th Amendment, 2002 inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right.
Which Article protects against arrest and detention in certain cases?
- (a) Article 20
- (b) Article 21
- (c) Article 22
- (d) Article 23
Answer: (c) Article 22. Article 22 gives rights such as being informed of the grounds of arrest, consulting a lawyer and production before a magistrate within 24 hours.
Protection against double jeopardy and self-incrimination is under:
- (a) Article 20
- (b) Article 21
- (c) Article 22
- (d) Article 14
Answer: (a) Article 20. Article 20 protects against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy and self-incrimination.
Which Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended even during a national emergency?
- (a) Articles 14 and 19
- (b) Articles 20 and 21
- (c) Articles 21 and 32
- (d) Articles 19 and 22
Answer: (b) Articles 20 and 21. After the 44th Amendment, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.
Article 23 prohibits:
- (a) Child labour in factories
- (b) Traffic in human beings and forced labour
- (c) Untouchability
- (d) Titles
Answer: (b) Traffic in human beings and forced labour. Article 23 prohibits human trafficking, begar and other forced labour; Article 24 prohibits child labour in hazardous work.
Which writ is issued to a public official to perform a public duty they have failed to perform?
- (a) Habeas Corpus
- (b) Mandamus
- (c) Prohibition
- (d) Quo Warranto
Answer: (b) Mandamus. Mandamus ('we command') orders a public authority to perform its legal duty.
Which writ asks a person to show by what authority they hold a public office?
- (a) Certiorari
- (b) Prohibition
- (c) Quo Warranto
- (d) Mandamus
Answer: (c) Quo Warranto. Quo Warranto ('by what authority') stops a person from unlawfully holding a public office.
Which writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court to transfer a case or quash its order?
- (a) Certiorari
- (b) Mandamus
- (c) Habeas Corpus
- (d) Quo Warranto
Answer: (a) Certiorari. Certiorari quashes an order already passed or transfers a pending case; Prohibition stops a lower court from going beyond its jurisdiction.
B.R. Ambedkar called which Article the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?
- (a) Article 14
- (b) Article 19
- (c) Article 21
- (d) Article 32
Answer: (d) Article 32. Article 32, the right to constitutional remedies, lets a person move the Supreme Court directly to enforce Fundamental Rights.
The right to privacy was declared a Fundamental Right under Article 21 in:
- (a) Maneka Gandhi case
- (b) K.S. Puttaswamy case (2017)
- (c) Kesavananda Bharati case
- (d) A.K. Gopalan case
Answer: (b) K.S. Puttaswamy case (2017). A nine-judge bench in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India (2017) held privacy is part of Article 21.
The right to property is now:
- (a) A Fundamental Right under Article 31
- (b) A legal (constitutional) right under Article 300A
- (c) A Directive Principle
- (d) A Fundamental Duty
Answer: (b) A legal (constitutional) right under Article 300A. The 44th Amendment, 1978 removed property from Fundamental Rights and made it a constitutional right under Article 300A.
Directive Principles, Duties and Amendments
Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
- (a) Part III
- (b) Part IV
- (c) Part IVA
- (d) Part V
Answer: (b) Part IV. Articles 36 to 51 in Part IV contain the Directive Principles; they are not enforceable by courts.
Which Article directs the State to organise village panchayats?
- (a) Article 39
- (b) Article 40
- (c) Article 44
- (d) Article 48
Answer: (b) Article 40. Article 40 asks the State to organise village panchayats as units of self-government; it is a Gandhian principle.
A Uniform Civil Code for citizens is mentioned in:
- (a) Article 44
- (b) Article 45
- (c) Article 48A
- (d) Article 50
Answer: (a) Article 44. Article 44 directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code throughout India.
Separation of the judiciary from the executive is a Directive Principle under:
- (a) Article 48
- (b) Article 49
- (c) Article 50
- (d) Article 51
Answer: (c) Article 50. Article 50 directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services.
Protection of the environment and wildlife is a Directive Principle under:
- (a) Article 47
- (b) Article 48A
- (c) Article 49
- (d) Article 51
Answer: (b) Article 48A. Article 48A was added by the 42nd Amendment; the matching Fundamental Duty is Article 51A(g).
Which Article contains the Fundamental Duties?
- (a) Article 51
- (b) Article 51A
- (c) Article 50
- (d) Article 52
Answer: (b) Article 51A. Article 51A in Part IVA lists the Fundamental Duties; Article 51 is about promoting international peace.
How many Fundamental Duties are there at present?
- (a) 10
- (b) 11
- (c) 12
- (d) 9
Answer: (b) 11. The 42nd Amendment added ten duties; the 86th Amendment, 2002 added the eleventh, about parents providing education to children aged 6 to 14.
The Fundamental Duties were added on the recommendation of which committee?
- (a) Swaran Singh Committee
- (b) Sarkaria Commission
- (c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
- (d) Verma Committee
Answer: (a) Swaran Singh Committee. The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended adding Fundamental Duties.
In which case did the Supreme Court propound the 'basic structure' doctrine?
- (a) Golaknath case
- (b) Kesavananda Bharati case
- (c) Minerva Mills case
- (d) Shankari Prasad case
Answer: (b) Kesavananda Bharati case. Kesavananda Bharati (1973) held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution but cannot destroy its basic structure.
The Supreme Court held that a balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is part of the basic structure in:
- (a) Minerva Mills case (1980)
- (b) Champakam Dorairajan case
- (c) I.R. Coelho case
- (d) Waman Rao case
Answer: (a) Minerva Mills case (1980). In Minerva Mills the Court struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment and held the harmony between Parts III and IV is a basic feature.
Which article deals with the procedure to amend the Constitution?
- (a) Article 352
- (b) Article 356
- (c) Article 368
- (d) Article 370
Answer: (c) Article 368. Article 368 in Part XX lays down the power and procedure of Parliament to amend the Constitution.
An amendment affecting the federal structure needs Parliament's special majority and ratification by:
- (a) All states
- (b) At least half of the state legislatures
- (c) Two-thirds of the states
- (d) The President only
Answer: (b) At least half of the state legislatures. Amendments to federal provisions, such as the election of the President or the distribution of powers, need ratification by half of the state legislatures.
Which amendment is called a 'mini-Constitution'?
- (a) 24th
- (b) 42nd
- (c) 44th
- (d) 73rd
Answer: (b) 42nd. The 42nd Amendment, 1976 made sweeping changes, including the words socialist and secular and the Fundamental Duties.
The 103rd Amendment, 2019 provided for:
- (a) GST
- (b) 10% reservation for economically weaker sections
- (c) National Judicial Appointments Commission
- (d) Abolition of Article 370
Answer: (b) 10% reservation for economically weaker sections. The 103rd Amendment allowed up to 10% reservation for economically weaker sections in education and public jobs.
The 106th Amendment, 2023 relates to:
- (a) Reservation of one-third seats for women in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies
- (b) Anti-defection law
- (c) Lowering the voting age
- (d) Cooperative societies
Answer: (a) Reservation of one-third seats for women in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha, state assemblies and the Delhi assembly.
Parliament and the Union Executive
Under Article 81, what is the maximum number of elected members of the Lok Sabha?
- (a) 545
- (b) 550
- (c) 552
- (d) 500
Answer: (b) 550. Article 81 allows up to 550 elected members: 530 from the states and 20 from Union Territories. The two nominated Anglo-Indian seats, which made the old figure 552, ended with the 104th Amendment.
The President nominates how many members to the Rajya Sabha?
- (a) 10
- (b) 12
- (c) 14
- (d) 2
Answer: (b) 12. Twelve members with special knowledge of literature, science, art or social service are nominated under Article 80.
Who presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?
- (a) The President
- (b) The Vice-President
- (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- (d) The Prime Minister
Answer: (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Under Article 108 the Speaker presides; in the Speaker's absence the Deputy Speaker, and then the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
A joint sitting cannot be called for which bill?
- (a) Ordinary bill
- (b) Money bill and Constitution Amendment bill
- (c) Financial bill (Category II)
- (d) Any bill passed by the Lok Sabha
Answer: (b) Money bill and Constitution Amendment bill. There is no joint sitting for Money Bills (the Lok Sabha prevails) or Constitution Amendment Bills (each House must pass them separately).
For how many days can the Rajya Sabha hold a Money Bill?
- (a) 14 days
- (b) 30 days
- (c) 6 months
- (d) It can reject it
Answer: (a) 14 days. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within 14 days, with or without recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may reject.
The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament is:
- (a) 3 months
- (b) 6 months
- (c) 1 year
- (d) 4 months
Answer: (b) 6 months. Article 85 requires that not more than six months pass between the last sitting of one session and the first of the next.
What is the quorum for a sitting of either House of Parliament?
- (a) One-fourth of total members
- (b) One-tenth of total members
- (c) One-third of total members
- (d) Half of total members
Answer: (b) One-tenth of total members. Article 100 sets the quorum at one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
The anti-defection law is in which Schedule?
- (a) Eighth
- (b) Ninth
- (c) Tenth
- (d) Eleventh
Answer: (c) Tenth. The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985; the Speaker or Chairman decides on disqualification.
'Zero Hour' in Parliament is:
- (a) Mentioned in the Rules of Procedure
- (b) An Indian parliamentary innovation not mentioned in the rules
- (c) The first hour of every sitting
- (d) Time reserved for the Prime Minister
Answer: (b) An Indian parliamentary innovation not mentioned in the rules. Zero Hour, starting around 12 noon, is an informal Indian innovation used since 1962 to raise urgent matters.
A starred question in Parliament is one that:
- (a) Requires a written answer
- (b) Requires an oral answer and allows supplementary questions
- (c) Is asked to a private member
- (d) Is asked with less than 10 days' notice
Answer: (b) Requires an oral answer and allows supplementary questions. Starred questions get oral answers with supplementaries; unstarred questions get written answers.
Who certifies a Money Bill?
- (a) The President
- (b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- (c) The Finance Minister
- (d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer: (b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Under Article 110(3) the Speaker's decision on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final.
The Public Accounts Committee is usually chaired by:
- (a) A member of the ruling party
- (b) A member of the Opposition
- (c) The Speaker
- (d) The CAG
Answer: (b) A member of the Opposition. By convention since 1967, the PAC chairman is from the Opposition; it examines the CAG's audit reports.
Which is the largest committee of Parliament?
- (a) Public Accounts Committee
- (b) Estimates Committee
- (c) Committee on Public Undertakings
- (d) Business Advisory Committee
Answer: (b) Estimates Committee. The Estimates Committee has 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha; it suggests economies in expenditure.
The Union Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the President, but in practice it stays in office as long as it has:
- (a) The support of the Rajya Sabha
- (b) The confidence of the Lok Sabha
- (c) The approval of the Supreme Court
- (d) A majority of state governments
Answer: (b) The confidence of the Lok Sabha. Collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)) means the ministry stays only while it has the confidence of that House.
The Attorney General of India has the right to:
- (a) Vote in Parliament
- (b) Speak in Parliament but not vote
- (c) Preside over the Rajya Sabha
- (d) Veto bills
Answer: (b) Speak in Parliament but not vote. Under Article 88 the Attorney General can speak and take part in proceedings of either House but cannot vote.
The Judiciary
The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on:
- (a) 26 January 1950
- (b) 28 January 1950
- (c) 15 August 1947
- (d) 26 November 1949
Answer: (b) 28 January 1950. The Supreme Court was inaugurated on 28 January 1950, two days after the Constitution came into force.
The Supreme Court's original jurisdiction over disputes between the Centre and states is under:
- (a) Article 131
- (b) Article 32
- (c) Article 136
- (d) Article 143
Answer: (a) Article 131. Article 131 gives the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes between the Centre and states or between states.
Special Leave Petitions to the Supreme Court are under:
- (a) Article 132
- (b) Article 136
- (c) Article 137
- (d) Article 141
Answer: (b) Article 136. Article 136 lets the Supreme Court grant special leave to appeal from any judgment of any court or tribunal, except military tribunals.
The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is under:
- (a) Article 143
- (b) Article 142
- (c) Article 139
- (d) Article 145
Answer: (a) Article 143. Under Article 143 the President can seek the Supreme Court's opinion on questions of law or fact; the opinion is not binding.
Which Article allows the Supreme Court to pass any order needed for 'complete justice'?
- (a) Article 141
- (b) Article 142
- (c) Article 144
- (d) Article 137
Answer: (b) Article 142. Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for complete justice in a case.
Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts under:
- (a) Article 141
- (b) Article 129
- (c) Article 226
- (d) Article 227
Answer: (a) Article 141. Article 141 makes Supreme Court judgments binding on all courts in India.
The Supreme Court is a 'court of record' under:
- (a) Article 129
- (b) Article 131
- (c) Article 215
- (d) Article 124
Answer: (a) Article 129. Article 129 makes the Supreme Court a court of record with power to punish for its contempt; Article 215 does the same for High Courts.
What is the retirement age of a Supreme Court judge?
- (a) 62 years
- (b) 65 years
- (c) 60 years
- (d) 70 years
Answer: (b) 65 years. Supreme Court judges retire at 65; High Court judges retire at 62.
A Supreme Court judge can be removed on grounds of:
- (a) Any reason given by the President
- (b) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity
- (c) Violation of the Constitution
- (d) Loss of confidence of Parliament
Answer: (b) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Removal needs an address by each House passed by a special majority on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity (Article 124(4)).
The 'collegium system' of appointing judges emerged from:
- (a) The original Constitution
- (b) The Second and Third Judges cases
- (c) The 99th Amendment
- (d) The Kesavananda Bharati case
Answer: (b) The Second and Third Judges cases. The Second (1993) and Third (1998) Judges cases created the collegium; the 99th Amendment's NJAC was struck down in 2015.
The writ jurisdiction of High Courts is under:
- (a) Article 32
- (b) Article 226
- (c) Article 227
- (d) Article 214
Answer: (b) Article 226. Article 226 lets High Courts issue writs for Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose, so it is wider than Article 32.
Which High Court has jurisdiction over the largest number of states and UTs?
- (a) Calcutta High Court
- (b) Guwahati (Gauhati) High Court
- (c) Bombay High Court
- (d) Madras High Court
Answer: (b) Guwahati (Gauhati) High Court. The Gauhati High Court covers Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India was pioneered by:
- (a) Justices P.N. Bhagwati and V.R. Krishna Iyer
- (b) Justice H.R. Khanna
- (c) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
- (d) Justice M. Hidayatullah
Answer: (a) Justices P.N. Bhagwati and V.R. Krishna Iyer. Justices P.N. Bhagwati and V.R. Krishna Iyer relaxed the rule of locus standi in the late 1970s and early 1980s.
Lok Adalats were given statutory status by:
- (a) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
- (b) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
- (c) Arbitration Act, 1996
- (d) Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008
Answer: (a) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gave Lok Adalats statutory status; their awards are final with no appeal.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
- (a) The Prime Minister
- (b) The President
- (c) The Chief Justice of India
- (d) Parliament
Answer: (b) The President. Under Article 124 the President appoints judges after consultation, in practice on the collegium's recommendation.
State Government and Centre-State Relations
Who appoints the Governor of a state?
- (a) The Chief Minister
- (b) The President
- (c) The Prime Minister
- (d) The state legislature
Answer: (b) The President. Under Article 155 the President appoints the Governor by warrant; the Governor holds office during the President's pleasure.
What is the minimum age to be appointed Governor?
- (a) 25 years
- (b) 30 years
- (c) 35 years
- (d) 40 years
Answer: (c) 35 years. Article 157 requires a Governor to be a citizen of India and at least 35 years old.
Can the same person be Governor of two or more states?
- (a) No
- (b) Yes, under the 7th Amendment, 1956
- (c) Only with Supreme Court approval
- (d) Only for Union Territories
Answer: (b) Yes, under the 7th Amendment, 1956. The 7th Amendment, 1956 allowed one person to be appointed Governor of two or more states.
Which Article provides the Governor's power to reserve a state bill for the President's consideration?
- (a) Article 200
- (b) Article 213
- (c) Article 163
- (d) Article 174
Answer: (a) Article 200. Under Article 200 the Governor may assent, withhold assent, return a bill or reserve it for the President.
A Legislative Council in a state can be created or abolished by:
- (a) The President
- (b) The state legislature alone
- (c) Parliament, after a resolution of the state assembly by special majority
- (d) The Governor
Answer: (c) Parliament, after a resolution of the state assembly by special majority. Under Article 169 Parliament can create or abolish a Council if the assembly passes a resolution by a special majority.
What is the maximum strength of a state Legislative Council?
- (a) One-third of the Legislative Assembly's strength
- (b) Half of the Assembly's strength
- (c) 250
- (d) 60
Answer: (a) One-third of the Legislative Assembly's strength. A Council can have at most one-third of the Assembly's strength and at least 40 members.
The President's Rule in a state is imposed under:
- (a) Article 352
- (b) Article 356
- (c) Article 360
- (d) Article 365
Answer: (b) Article 356. Article 356 applies when the constitutional machinery in a state fails.
In which case did the Supreme Court lay down strict guidelines on the use of Article 356?
- (a) S.R. Bommai case (1994)
- (b) Kesavananda Bharati case
- (c) Minerva Mills case
- (d) Indra Sawhney case
Answer: (a) S.R. Bommai case (1994). The S.R. Bommai judgment made Presidential proclamations open to judicial review and said a government's majority must be tested on the floor of the House.
The Seventh Schedule contains:
- (a) Languages
- (b) Union, State and Concurrent Lists
- (c) Oaths and affirmations
- (d) Anti-defection provisions
Answer: (b) Union, State and Concurrent Lists. The Seventh Schedule divides legislative subjects into the Union, State and Concurrent Lists.
Residuary powers of legislation in India lie with:
- (a) The states
- (b) Parliament
- (c) Both Parliament and states
- (d) The President
Answer: (b) Parliament. Article 248 gives Parliament the power to make laws on matters not listed in the State or Concurrent Lists.
Under Article 249, Parliament can legislate on a State List subject if:
- (a) The President orders it
- (b) The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of members present and voting
- (c) The Lok Sabha passes a resolution
- (d) The Supreme Court allows it
Answer: (b) The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of members present and voting. A Rajya Sabha resolution in the national interest, passed by two-thirds of members present and voting, allows this for one year at a time.
Which commission reviewed Centre-state relations and reported in 1988?
- (a) Rajamannar Committee
- (b) Sarkaria Commission
- (c) Punchhi Commission
- (d) Administrative Reforms Commission
Answer: (b) Sarkaria Commission. The Sarkaria Commission (1983-1988) made 247 recommendations on Centre-state relations; the Punchhi Commission reported in 2010.
The Inter-State Council is established under:
- (a) Article 262
- (b) Article 263
- (c) Article 280
- (d) Article 279A
Answer: (b) Article 263. Article 263 lets the President set up an Inter-State Council; it was formed in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's advice.
Adjudication of inter-state river water disputes is under:
- (a) Article 262
- (b) Article 131
- (c) Article 263
- (d) Article 246
Answer: (a) Article 262. Article 262 lets Parliament provide for adjudication of water disputes and bar courts from hearing them.
The GST Council is a constitutional body under:
- (a) Article 270
- (b) Article 279A
- (c) Article 280
- (d) Article 293
Answer: (b) Article 279A. The 101st Amendment, 2016 inserted Article 279A creating the GST Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
Local Government and Emergency Provisions
Which committee recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in 1957?
- (a) Ashok Mehta Committee
- (b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
- (c) L.M. Singhvi Committee
- (d) G.V.K. Rao Committee
Answer: (b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended democratic decentralisation through a three-tier Panchayati Raj.
Which state first adopted Panchayati Raj, inaugurated at Nagaur on 2 October 1959?
- (a) Andhra Pradesh
- (b) Rajasthan
- (c) Gujarat
- (d) Maharashtra
Answer: (b) Rajasthan. Jawaharlal Nehru inaugurated Panchayati Raj at Nagaur in Rajasthan; Andhra Pradesh followed soon after.
The 73rd Amendment added which Part to the Constitution?
- (a) Part IX
- (b) Part IXA
- (c) Part X
- (d) Part VIII
Answer: (a) Part IX. The 73rd Amendment, 1992 added Part IX (Panchayats) and the Eleventh Schedule with 29 subjects.
The 74th Amendment relates to:
- (a) Panchayats
- (b) Municipalities
- (c) Cooperative societies
- (d) Scheduled Areas
Answer: (b) Municipalities. The 74th Amendment added Part IXA and the Twelfth Schedule (18 subjects) for urban local bodies.
What fraction of seats in panchayats must at least be reserved for women under the 73rd Amendment?
- (a) One-fourth
- (b) One-third
- (c) One-half
- (d) One-fifth
Answer: (b) One-third. At least one-third of seats, including among SC/ST seats, are reserved for women; many states provide 50%.
Elections to panchayats are conducted by:
- (a) The Election Commission of India
- (b) The State Election Commission
- (c) The District Collector
- (d) The Governor
Answer: (b) The State Election Commission. Under Article 243K, the State Election Commission conducts panchayat elections.
The term of a panchayat is:
- (a) 3 years
- (b) 4 years
- (c) 5 years
- (d) 6 years
Answer: (c) 5 years. Panchayats have a five-year term; if dissolved early, elections must be held within six months.
Which body reviews the financial position of panchayats and municipalities?
- (a) The Finance Commission of India
- (b) The State Finance Commission
- (c) The NITI Aayog
- (d) The CAG
Answer: (b) The State Finance Commission. Articles 243I and 243Y require the Governor to set up a State Finance Commission every five years.
A national emergency under Article 352 can be declared on grounds of:
- (a) War, external aggression or armed rebellion
- (b) War, external aggression or internal disturbance
- (c) Financial instability
- (d) Failure of constitutional machinery
Answer: (a) War, external aggression or armed rebellion. The 44th Amendment replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'.
A proclamation of national emergency must be approved by Parliament within:
- (a) 14 days
- (b) One month
- (c) Two months
- (d) Six months
Answer: (b) One month. After the 44th Amendment, both Houses must approve it within one month by a special majority; it then lasts six months at a time.
How many times has a national emergency been declared in India?
- (a) Once
- (b) Twice
- (c) Three times
- (d) Four times
Answer: (c) Three times. In 1962 (China war), 1971 (war with Pakistan) and 1975 (on grounds of internal disturbance).
Financial emergency is provided for under:
- (a) Article 352
- (b) Article 356
- (c) Article 360
- (d) Article 365
Answer: (c) Article 360. Article 360 allows a financial emergency; it has never been declared.
President's Rule in a state can be continued for a maximum of:
- (a) One year
- (b) Two years
- (c) Three years
- (d) Six months
Answer: (c) Three years. It is approved for six months at a time up to three years; beyond one year it needs special conditions under Article 356(5).
Which Article suspends the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during an emergency by Presidential order?
- (a) Article 358
- (b) Article 359
- (c) Article 352
- (d) Article 355
Answer: (b) Article 359. Article 359 lets the President suspend the right to move courts for enforcing specified rights, except Articles 20 and 21. Article 358 suspends Article 19 automatically during war or external aggression.
Ward Committees in municipalities are required for populations of:
- (a) One lakh or more
- (b) Three lakh or more
- (c) Five lakh or more
- (d) Ten lakh or more
Answer: (b) Three lakh or more. Article 243S requires Ward Committees in municipalities with a population of three lakh or more.
Constitutional and Statutory Bodies
The Election Commission of India is provided for under:
- (a) Article 280
- (b) Article 315
- (c) Article 324
- (d) Article 148
Answer: (c) Article 324. Article 324 vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission.
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed:
- (a) By the President at will
- (b) In the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge
- (c) By the Prime Minister
- (d) By a simple majority of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (b) In the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge. Article 324(5) gives the CEC the same removal protection as a Supreme Court judge.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed under:
- (a) Article 148
- (b) Article 76
- (c) Article 315
- (d) Article 280
Answer: (a) Article 148. Article 148 provides for the CAG, appointed by the President; Article 76 is about the Attorney General.
The CAG's audit reports on Union accounts are submitted to:
- (a) The Prime Minister
- (b) The President, who lays them before Parliament
- (c) The Finance Minister
- (d) The Speaker
Answer: (b) The President, who lays them before Parliament. Under Article 151 the reports go to the President, who has them laid before each House; the PAC then examines them.
The Finance Commission is constituted under:
- (a) Article 270
- (b) Article 280
- (c) Article 282
- (d) Article 293
Answer: (b) Article 280. Article 280 requires the President to set up a Finance Commission every five years to recommend tax sharing between the Centre and states.
Members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by:
- (a) The Prime Minister
- (b) The President
- (c) Parliament
- (d) The Chief Justice
Answer: (b) The President. Under Article 316 the President appoints the UPSC chairman and members; they serve six years or until age 65.
Which of these is a statutory body, not a constitutional body?
- (a) Election Commission
- (b) Finance Commission
- (c) National Human Rights Commission
- (d) Union Public Service Commission
Answer: (c) National Human Rights Commission. The NHRC was set up under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993; the others are created by the Constitution.
Who is the chairperson of the NHRC?
- (a) A retired Chief Justice of India or a retired Supreme Court judge
- (b) The Home Minister
- (c) A retired High Court judge only
- (d) The Prime Minister
Answer: (a) A retired Chief Justice of India or a retired Supreme Court judge. After the 2019 amendment, a retired Chief Justice of India or a retired Supreme Court judge can head the NHRC.
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body under:
- (a) Article 338
- (b) Article 338A
- (c) Article 340
- (d) Article 350B
Answer: (a) Article 338. Article 338 provides for the National Commission for SCs; Article 338A for STs and Article 338B for Backward Classes.
The National Commission for Backward Classes got constitutional status through the:
- (a) 93rd Amendment
- (b) 102nd Amendment
- (c) 103rd Amendment
- (d) 89th Amendment
Answer: (b) 102nd Amendment. The 102nd Amendment, 2018 inserted Article 338B.
NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission on:
- (a) 1 January 2015
- (b) 15 August 2014
- (c) 26 January 2015
- (d) 1 April 2015
Answer: (a) 1 January 2015. NITI Aayog was set up by a Union Cabinet resolution on 1 January 2015; it is neither constitutional nor statutory.
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in:
- (a) 2011
- (b) 2013
- (c) 2014
- (d) 2016
Answer: (b) 2013. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 created the Lokpal; the first Lokpal was appointed in 2019.
The Central Vigilance Commission got statutory status in:
- (a) 1964
- (b) 2003
- (c) 1993
- (d) 2013
Answer: (b) 2003. The CVC was set up in 1964 on the Santhanam Committee's advice and became statutory under the CVC Act, 2003.
The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is provided under:
- (a) Article 350A
- (b) Article 350B
- (c) Article 347
- (d) Article 343
Answer: (b) Article 350B. Article 350B, added by the 7th Amendment, provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities appointed by the President.
The Advocate General of a state is appointed by:
- (a) The President
- (b) The Governor
- (c) The Chief Justice of the High Court
- (d) The Chief Minister
Answer: (b) The Governor. Article 165 provides for the Advocate General, the highest law officer of a state, appointed by the Governor.
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